A 71-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to the sudden onset of severe abdominal pain that radiates to his lower back. He has a medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and an asymptomatic 6.2-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm diagnosed one year ago. Upon arrival, his blood pressure is 75/40 mmHg, and his heart rate is 122/min. He appears pale, confused, and diaphoretic. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with an exquisitely tender, palpable, pulsatile periumbilical mass. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- AComputed tomography angiography of the abdomen
- BIntravenous administration of esmolol
- CIntravenous fluid resuscitation and serial hematocrit monitoring
- Emergent surgical repairCevap
- EIntravenous administration of broad-spectrum antibiotics
Cevap
The most appropriate next step is emergent surgical repair.
The correct answer is emergent surgical repair. This patient presents with the classic triad of a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA): severe back/abdominal pain, profound hypotension, and a pulsatile abdominal mass. When a patient is hemodynamically unstable and has a known history of a large AAA, the diagnosis is clinical, and there is no need for further imaging. The absolute immediate next step is to transport the patient to the operating room for emergent surgical repair (either open or endovascular, depending on patient anatomy and facility capabilities). Any delay for diagnostic testing in this scenario is associated with a dramatic increase in mortality.
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Hemodynamically unstable patients with a known abdominal aortic aneurysm who present with classic symptoms of rupture (hypotension, back pain, pulsatile mass) require immediate emergent surgical repair without further imaging.
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