An 68-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to sudden, severe chest pain that began 45 minutes ago. She describes the pain as "tearing" and radiating directly to her interscapular region. En route to the hospital, the patient had a brief episode of syncope. Her medical history includes long-standing hypertension and a 40-pack-year smoking history. Upon arrival, she is lethargic and diaphoretic. Vital signs are temperature 36.8°C (98.2°F), heart rate 122/min, blood pressure 78/50 mm Hg in the right arm and 82/54 mm Hg in the left arm, and respiratory rate 24/min. Pulse oximetry shows 95% on room air. Physical examination reveals distended jugular veins while sitting at a 45-degree angle. Lung fields are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Cardiac auscultation reveals a faint early diastolic decrescendo murmur at the right upper sternal border. The peripheral pulses are weak but symmetric. An electrocardiogram demonstrates sinus tachycardia with low-voltage QRS complexes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Bedside transthoracic echocardiographyCevap
- BComputed tomography angiography of the chest
- CIntravenous labetalol administration
- DIntravenous furosemide administration
- EImmediate bedside pericardiocentesis