A 59-year-old man is evaluated for a high fever one week after undergoing an elective partial colectomy with primary anastomosis for recurrent diverticulitis. He reports feeling generally unwell and has experienced nausea and worsening deep abdominal discomfort since yesterday. His temperature is 39.0°C (102.2°F), blood pressure is 122/76 mmHg, pulse is 108/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination demonstrates a slightly distended abdomen with localized tenderness in the left lower quadrant, but no generalized peritonitis. The surgical skin closure is intact, dry, and shows no surrounding redness or discharge. A complete blood count reveals a leukocyte count of 17,200/mm³. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Obtain a computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvisCevap
- BRemove the surgical staples and pack the incision
- CAdminister empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics and observe clinically
- DPerform bilateral duplex ultrasonography of the lower extremities
- EEncourage aggressive incentive spirometry and chest physiotherapy