A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance due to the sudden onset of excruciating, tearing anterior chest pain that radiates to his interscapular region. Minutes after the pain began, he developed severe shortness of breath. His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Upon arrival, he appears ashen, diaphoretic, and in severe respiratory distress. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure is 82/45 mmHg in the right arm and 80/42 mmHg in the left arm, heart rate is 128/min, and respiratory rate is 34/min with an oxygen saturation of 86% on room air. Physical examination reveals elevated jugular venous pressure. Lung auscultation demonstrates diffuse bilateral crackles extending to the apices, along with prominent expiratory wheezing. Cardiac auscultation reveals a regular tachycardia with a loud, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur heard best at the right second intercostal space. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. Bilateral lower extremities are cool to the touch with faint pedal pulses. Electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia with non-specific ST-segment changes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AAdminister intravenous esmolol and sodium nitroprusside to rapidly decrease sheer stress on the aorta
- BTransport the patient immediately to the radiology suite for computed tomography angiography of the chest
- Perform bedside transesophageal echocardiography and obtain an emergent surgical consultationCevap
- DAdminister intravenous furosemide, inhaled bronchodilators, and initiate noninvasive positive pressure ventilation
- EInitiate intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and obtain blood cultures