A -year-old man is evaluated in the surgical step-down unit due to a sudden deterioration in his clinical status. He was admitted hours ago for management of an adhesive small bowel obstruction. Initial treatment with intravenous fluids, bowel rest, and nasogastric tube decompression led to mild improvement during the first day. However, over the past hours, his previously intermittent, crampy periumbilical pain has transitioned to severe, constant, and diffuse abdominal pain. Temperature is (), pulse is , respirations are , and blood pressure is . Physical examination reveals a rigid, distended abdomen with marked rebound tenderness and involuntary guarding in all quadrants. Bowel sounds are absent. Laboratory evaluation demonstrates a leukocyte count of with band forms, and a serum lactate of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Exploratory laparotomyCevap
- BContinuation of nasogastric decompression and intravenous fluids
- CComputed tomography of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast
- DUpper gastrointestinal series with water-soluble contrast
- EInitiation of broad-spectrum antibiotics and close observation