A 12-month-old boy is brought to the pediatrician for a routine well-child visit. His medical history is significant for perinatal HIV infection. He is currently prescribed antiretroviral therapy, but his mother admits to frequently missing doses over the past few months. Recent laboratory studies show a CD4 T-lymphocyte count of 450 cells/mm³ and a CD4 percentage of 12%. The parents express concern about his physical development, noting that he is not yet able to run or kick a ball. On examination, the boy is alert and interactive. He can stand independently for a few seconds and uses a fine pincer grasp to pick up a raisin. He says "mama" and "dada" specifically and waves "bye-bye" to the clinician. He has received all previously recommended immunizations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Administer age-appropriate inactivated vaccines only and reassure the parents regarding his developmentCevap
- BAdminister age-appropriate inactivated and live-attenuated vaccines and reassure the parents regarding his development
- CAdminister age-appropriate inactivated and live-attenuated vaccines and refer the patient for a developmental evaluation
- DAdminister age-appropriate inactivated vaccines only and refer the patient for a developmental evaluation
- EDefer all immunizations until his CD4 T-lymphocyte percentage improves and reassure the parents regarding his development