A physician is evaluating a 61-year-old female patient who reports a six-month history of increasingly frequent urges to urinate, often resulting in involuntary leakage before she can reach a restroom. She notes having to wake up two to three times per night to void. The patient also mentions progressive vaginal dryness and discomfort during intercourse. She has no history of fevers, hematuria, or dysuria. Her last menstrual period was 10 years ago. Her medical history includes hypertension, for which she takes amlodipine. Vital signs are within normal limits. On physical examination, the vulvar and vaginal tissues appear pale, thin, and lack normal rugation. The urethral meatus is slightly retracted. A midstream urinalysis is negative for nitrites and leukocyte esterase, with 0-1 leukocytes/hpf. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Topical vaginal estrogen therapyCevap
- BOral oxybutynin
- COral ciprofloxacin
- DMidurethral sling placement
- EUrodynamic testing