A 24-year-old G1P0 woman at 33 weeks gestation presents to the obstetric triage unit with painful uterine contractions and leakage of clear vaginal fluid that began 8 hours ago. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated. On admission, her temperature is 39.1°C (102.4°F), blood pressure is 112/72 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, and respiratory rate is 18/min. Physical examination reveals a diffusely tender uterine fundus. A sterile speculum examination confirms pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix. The cervix is visibly 4 cm dilated and 80% effaced. Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring demonstrates a baseline of 170/min, minimal variability, and no decelerations. The patient is fully oriented. When the physician discusses the clinical findings, she states, 'I understand the risks, but I strongly want to have a vaginal delivery. I refuse any surgical intervention unless my baby is in imminent, life-threatening danger.' Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics and augment labor with oxytocin.Cevap
- BAdminister indomethacin and betamethasone, and admit the patient for continuous observation.
- CPerform an immediate cesarean delivery due to the presence of fetal tachycardia.
- DSeek an emergency ethics consultation and court order to perform a cesarean delivery.
- EWithhold antibiotic administration until amniotic fluid culture and sensitivity results are available to allow for targeted therapy.