An 81-year-old male with a history of hypertension and a 50-pack-year smoking history is brought to the emergency department after a syncopal episode at home. Upon arrival, he reports sudden, severe, and constant abdominal and left flank pain. His current medications include lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. His temperature is 36.8°C (98.2°F), blood pressure is 82/45 mm Hg, pulse is 118/min, and respiratory rate is 22/min. He appears pale, diaphoretic, and lethargic. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with a palpable, pulsatile mass located above the umbilicus. A bedside focused assessment with sonography for trauma (FAST) demonstrates a 7.5-cm dilation of the infrarenal aorta with an adjacent anechoic fluid collection in the retroperitoneum. Two large-bore peripheral intravenous lines are placed, and fluid resuscitation is initiated.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Immediate transfer to the operating room for surgical repairCevap
- BComputed tomography angiography of the abdomen and pelvis
- CIntravenous administration of labetalol
- DInsertion of a nasogastric tube and serial abdominal examinations
- EIntravenous administration of piperacillin-tazobactam