A 55-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital on day 2 of admission for uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia. She was initially started on intravenous ceftriaxone and azithromycin. Over the past 48 hours, her temperature has normalized from an admission peak of 38.9°C (102.0°F) to 37.2°C (99.0°F), and her respiratory effort has markedly improved. Two sets of peripheral blood cultures (four bottles total) were obtained in the emergency department prior to antibiotic administration. Today, the laboratory reports that one aerobic bottle from the first set is growing Staphylococcus epidermidis. The other three bottles exhibit no growth after 48 hours of incubation. The patient has no indwelling vascular catheters or prosthetic devices. Upon receiving the culture report, the cross-covering physician immediately adds intravenous vancomycin to the patient's regimen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's pharmacotherapy?
- AContinue vancomycin, ceftriaxone, and azithromycin for a total of 14 days
- BDiscontinue ceftriaxone and azithromycin, and proceed with vancomycin monotherapy
- Discontinue vancomycin immediately and maintain the initial regimen for pneumoniaCevap
- DReplace vancomycin with intravenous daptomycin to target biofilm-producing organisms
- EAdd oral rifampin to the current regimen to achieve synergy against the staphylococcal isolate