A 61-year-old man is evaluated on postoperative day 2 following an elective open hepatic resection for a solitary colorectal metastasis. He reports moderate pain at the surgical site but denies shortness of breath, chest pain, cough, or dysuria. His medical history is significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Pulse oximetry is on room air. Physical examination reveals an intact abdominal incision without erythema, induration, or purulent drainage. Lung auscultation demonstrates fine bibasilar crackles that completely disappear after the patient coughs forcefully. Cardiac examination shows a regular rhythm with no murmurs or gallops. The abdomen is soft, and bowel sounds are hypoactive. There is trace bilateral lower extremity edema that is unchanged from his preoperative baseline. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Observation and encouragement of incentive spirometryCevap
- BCollection of blood, urine, and sputum cultures
- CInitiation of empiric intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics
- DIntravenous administration of furosemide
- EComputed tomography pulmonary angiography