A 13-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents due to left knee pain and a limp that has progressively worsened over the past month. Yesterday, the pain became significantly more severe after he jumped down from a small wall. He has no history of direct trauma to the knee, fever, or prior medical conditions. His BMI is . Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination of the left knee reveals no effusion, joint line tenderness, or ligamentous laxity. During examination of the left hip, flexion of the hip results in obligatory external rotation of the thigh. Internal rotation of the left hip is severely limited and elicits pain. Radiographs of the hip confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Strict non-weight bearing and operative stabilizationCevap
- BReassurance, rest, and scheduled ibuprofen
- CMagnetic resonance imaging of the left knee
- DClosed reduction and application of a spica cast
- EUrgent ultrasound-guided arthrocentesis of the left hip