A 68-year-old man is evaluated in the hospital on day 4 of admission for persistent low-grade fevers and fatigue. He originally presented with a 2-week history of generalized weakness, night sweats, and shortness of breath. His medical history is significant for hypertension and osteoarthritis. On examination today, temperature is 37.8°C (100.0°F), blood pressure is 128/76 mmHg, and pulse is 88/min. Cardiac auscultation reveals a new grade 3/6 holosystolic murmur heard best at the cardiac apex. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 12,400/mm³ and serum creatinine of 1.4 mg/dL (baseline 0.9 mg/dL). Blood cultures drawn at admission have grown *Enterococcus faecalis* in 4 out of 4 bottles. Susceptibility testing demonstrates the isolate is susceptible to ampicillin, vancomycin, and linezolid, and lacks high-level aminoglycoside resistance. A transesophageal echocardiogram shows a 1.2-cm mobile vegetation on the mitral valve. The patient is currently receiving empiric therapy with intravenous vancomycin and cefepime. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Discontinue current antibiotics and initiate intravenous ampicillin and ceftriaxoneCevap
- BContinue both intravenous vancomycin and cefepime
- CDiscontinue cefepime and continue intravenous vancomycin monotherapy
- DDiscontinue current antibiotics and initiate intravenous daptomycin
- EDiscontinue cefepime and add intravenous gentamicin to the vancomycin regimen