A 46-year-old male with a history of an uncorrected right-to-left cardiac shunt is evaluated in the neurology unit for a progressively worsening, severe global headache over the past week. This morning, he developed new-onset weakness in his left arm and leg. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , and heart rate is . Neurologic examination reveals motor strength in the left upper and lower extremities and a left homonymous hemianopia. Fundoscopic examination shows bilateral optic disc swelling with blurred margins. A contrast-enhanced MRI of the brain demonstrates a solitary ring-enhancing lesion with a necrotic core in the right frontoparietal lobe, surrounded by substantial vasogenic edema and a midline shift. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Stereotactic aspiration of the lesionCevap
- BLumbar puncture for cerebrospinal fluid analysis
- CInitiation of intravenous empiric antibiotics alone
- DCraniotomy for en bloc resection of the lesion
- EIntravenous dexamethasone and serial imaging in 4 weeks