A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department after her roommate called emergency services. The roommate reported that the patient threatened to 'jump off the balcony' following a breakup with her boyfriend of one month. During the interview, the patient is calm and states, 'I did not actually mean it. I just wanted him to realize how much pain he caused me.' She says her boyfriend was 'the most perfect man ever' until yesterday, when she realized he is 'a complete monster.' The roommate notes that the patient has a history of impulsive spending, intense mood swings that typically last for a few hours, and a chronic feeling of emptiness. The patient mentions that when she gets extremely stressed, she sometimes hears a muffled voice calling her name, but this goes away quickly once she calms down. Her medical history includes atypical depression, for which she currently takes phenelzine. She asks the physician, 'Please do not tell my workplace about this visit; I told my manager I had a severe migraine.' The patient has no current suicidal ideation or plan.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AAdmit the patient to the psychiatric unit for treatment of schizophreniform disorder
- BAdd fluoxetine to her current medication regimen to address her mood lability
- Discharge the patient and provide a referral for dialectical behavior therapyCevap
- DDiagnose bipolar disorder and initiate sertraline monotherapy after a two-week washout
- ENotify her employer to ensure workplace safety and arrange a leave of absence