A 26-year-old woman comes to the office due to an 8-month history of an inability to conceive and absent menses. Menarche occurred at age 13, and her menses were previously regular, occurring every 28 days. Over the past 6 months, she has noticed increased hair growth on her face and chest, severe acne, and a deepening of her voice. She and her husband have been having unprotected intercourse regularly for the past year. She has no significant past medical history and takes no medications. Vital signs are temperature , blood pressure , pulse , and respirations . BMI is . Physical examination reveals moderate acne on the cheeks and jawline, as well as coarse, dark terminal hair on the upper lip, chin, and periareolar areas. Pelvic examination reveals clitoromegaly. Bimanual examination shows a normal-sized uterus, but is otherwise limited due to patient guarding. A urine pregnancy test is negative. Laboratory studies show a serum thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of and a serum prolactin level of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
- AMeasurement of early morning 17-hydroxyprogesterone level
- Measurement of serum testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate levelsCevap
- CTransvaginal ultrasound to assess for polycystic ovaries
- DInitiation of combined oral contraceptive pills
- EInitiation of levothyroxine therapy