A 48-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a 2-day history of fever, chills, and progressive right lower extremity swelling and redness. Her past medical history is unremarkable. On admission, her temperature is 38.6°C (101.5°F), blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and pulse is 108/min. Physical examination reveals a cm area of well-demarcated erythema, warmth, and exquisite tenderness over the right calf. Two sets of peripheral blood cultures are obtained, and the patient is started on empiric intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam.
By hospital day 3, her temperature has normalized, and the erythema has significantly receded. The admission blood cultures grow *Staphylococcus aureus* in all four bottles. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing reveals the following:
| Antimicrobial | Interpretation |
|---|---|
| Cefazolin | Susceptible |
| Daptomycin | Susceptible |
| Oxacillin | Susceptible |
| Penicillin | Resistant |
| Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole | Susceptible |
| Vancomycin | Susceptible |
A subsequent transthoracic echocardiogram shows no valvular vegetations. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the pharmacologic management of this patient?
- Discontinue the current antibiotics and begin intravenous cefazolinCevap
- BDiscontinue piperacillin-tazobactam and continue intravenous vancomycin
- CContinue both intravenous vancomycin and piperacillin-tazobactam
- DDiscontinue the current antibiotics and begin intravenous daptomycin
- EDiscontinue the current antibiotics and begin oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole