A 71-year-old female presents to the orthopedic clinic for a final preoperative evaluation. She is scheduled to undergo an elective right total knee arthroplasty in one week for severe osteoarthritis. Her medical history includes hypertension and diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient feels well and reports no dysuria, urinary frequency, urgency, or suprapubic discomfort. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals crepitus and decreased range of motion in the right knee but is otherwise unremarkable. Routine preoperative laboratory testing is notable for a urinalysis demonstrating positive leukocyte esterase and 15 leukocytes/hpf. A reflex urine culture grows CFU/mL of *Escherichia coli* that is susceptible to cephalexin, nitrofurantoin, ciprofloxacin, and trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following is the most appropriate management regarding her urinary findings?
- APrescribe a 3-day course of oral ciprofloxacin
- BPrescribe a 5-day course of oral nitrofurantoin
- CDelay the surgery until a repeat urine culture is sterile
- Proceed with surgery without targeted antimicrobial therapy for the bacteriuriaCevap
- EAdminister a single dose of intravenous gentamicin immediately prior to the incision