A 74-year-old retired teacher is evaluated in the emergency department for sudden, excruciating pain in his right lower extremity that began 3 hours ago. He reports that his foot feels cold and he cannot move his toes. His past medical history includes hypertension, osteoarthritis, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. He is not currently taking anticoagulation due to a history of peptic ulcer disease. His pulse is 112/min and irregularly irregular, and his blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals a pale, cold right leg from the mid-calf distally. The right femoral pulse is palpable, but the popliteal and pedal pulses are absent. There is profound sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot, and the patient is unable to actively dorsiflex his ankle. Continuous-wave Doppler ultrasound detects venous signals but no arterial signals over the dorsalis pedis artery. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Intravenous heparin administration and emergent surgical embolectomyCevap
- BCatheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis
- CComputed tomography angiography of the right lower extremity
- DImmediate four-compartment fasciotomy of the right leg
- EOral rivaroxaban administration and elevation of the extremity