A 71-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit regarding his antimicrobial regimen. He was admitted 12 days ago for acute respiratory distress syndrome secondary to a severe viral pneumonitis and required endotracheal intubation. Five days ago, his clinical status deteriorated with the development of a fever up to 39.4°C (102.9°F), worsening hypoxia, and thick, purulent endotracheal secretions. A chest radiograph at that time demonstrated a new dense consolidation in the left lower lobe. Empiric intravenous therapy with piperacillin-tazobactam, tobramycin, and vancomycin was initiated.
Today, the patient is clinically improving; he is afebrile (37.1°C [98.8°F]), and his ventilator settings have been significantly weaned. The quantitative bronchoalveolar lavage culture obtained five days ago exhibits heavy growth ( CFU/mL) of *Pseudomonas aeruginosa*. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing indicates the organism is susceptible to piperacillin-tazobactam, cefepime, and ciprofloxacin, but resistant to tobramycin. No other organisms, including methicillin-resistant *Staphylococcus aureus* (MRSA), have been isolated. Blood cultures show no growth.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's pharmacotherapy?
- Discontinue tobramycin and vancomycin, and continue piperacillin-tazobactam monotherapyCevap
- BDiscontinue vancomycin and substitute intravenous ciprofloxacin for tobramycin, while continuing piperacillin-tazobactam
- CDiscontinue tobramycin, and continue piperacillin-tazobactam and vancomycin
- DDiscontinue piperacillin-tazobactam, tobramycin, and vancomycin, and initiate meropenem monotherapy
- EContinue the current regimen of piperacillin-tazobactam, tobramycin, and vancomycin without modifications