A 75-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his family due to worsening confusion and severe lower abdominal pain over the past 24 hours. His family reports he has not urinated since yesterday morning. His medical history is significant for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and bipolar disorder, for which he takes tamsulosin and lithium. On presentation, his blood pressure is , and his heart rate is . Physical examination reveals a firm, tender suprapubic mass extending to the umbilicus.
Laboratory studies reveal:
Blood urea nitrogen:
Serum creatinine: (baseline )
Serum potassium:
Urinalysis: negative for leukocyte esterase and nitrites
A urethral Foley catheter is placed, immediately yielding of clear urine. He is admitted for monitoring. Over the next 4 hours, his urine output consistently remains between and per hour. His repeat blood pressure drops to , and his heart rate increases to . The patient appears pale, and his mucous membranes are severely dry.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Initiate intravenous fluid replacement with sodium chloride targeting replacement of a portion of the hourly urine outputCevap
- BAdminister broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics, such as piperacillin-tazobactam, for suspected septic shock
- CTransport the patient for an emergent computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis to rule out bladder rupture
- DAdminister intravenous sodium bicarbonate to empirically treat severe uremic metabolic acidosis
- EInitiate a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) to manage his acute agitation and delirium