A 24-year-old woman is admitted to the inpatient medical-surgical ward for intravenous antibiotic treatment of a complicated lower extremity cellulitis. Over the past 48 hours, her behavior has become increasingly disruptive. During morning rounds, she tells the daytime attending physician, "You are the only brilliant doctor in this hospital. The night shift nurses and doctors are completely incompetent, and I think they are trying to ruin my recovery on purpose." She is pleasant and cooperative with the daytime medical team. However, later that evening, the night charge nurse reports that the patient was screaming at the staff, calling the daytime doctors "clueless," and demanding that the night team ignore the morning care plan. The patient has a history of multiple brief, intense relationships and recurrent suicidal gestures, though she currently denies suicidal ideation. This situation has caused significant arguments between the day and night shift staff regarding her care. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Schedule a joint meeting with all involved medical and nursing staff to establish a unified and consistent care planCevap
- BDiagnose brief psychotic disorder and administer an atypical antipsychotic
- CInitiate fluoxetine monotherapy to target her emotional lability and anger
- DAssign a single designated provider to interact with the patient to build an exclusive therapeutic alliance
- EConfront the patient aggressively about her manipulative behavior and threaten early discharge