During morning rounds, a surgical team evaluates a 68-year-old male inpatient whose clinical status has acutely worsened. He was admitted two days prior for management of an adhesive small bowel obstruction. Initial treatment consisted of intravenous fluid resuscitation, bowel rest, and placement of a nasogastric tube for gastric decompression. Over the last three hours, the patient reports that his previously intermittent, crampy abdominal pain has become constant and severe. His temperature is 38.9°C (102.0°F), blood pressure is 102/64 mmHg, pulse is 118/min, and respirations are 22/min. Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with marked focal tenderness, involuntary guarding, and rebound tenderness in the periumbilical region. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 16,500/mm³ and a serum lactate level of 3.4 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Transfer to the operating room for surgical explorationCevap
- BContinuation of nasogastric suctioning and serial abdominal examinations
- CAdministration of a water-soluble contrast agent via the nasogastric tube
- DCross-sectional imaging of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
- EInitiation of broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotics and continued observation