A 35-year-old male architect is brought to the outpatient psychiatry clinic by his brother due to worsening depression. For the past 5 weeks, the patient has exhibited profound sadness, anhedonia, and severe fatigue. He struggles to concentrate at work and is sleeping up to 14 hours a day. The brother reports that 3 years ago, the patient had a 3-week period where he slept only 2 hours a night, spoke extremely rapidly, and believed he was receiving direct telepathic messages from aliens instructing him to redesign the city's infrastructure. During that time, he drained his personal savings to fund the project before his symptoms gradually subsided without formal medical treatment. The patient has no other medical conditions and takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits. Mental status examination reveals a depressed affect, psychomotor retardation, and tearfulness, but no current suicidal ideation or psychotic symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Initiate lurasidoneCevap
- BInitiate sertraline
- CInitiate venlafaxine
- DContact the patient's employer to warn them of potential architectural errors
- EDiagnose schizophreniform disorder and initiate risperidone