A 71-year-old woman who resides in a skilled nursing facility is currently receiving care in the intensive care unit for septic shock. She initially presented 48 hours ago with a temperature of 39.2°C (102.6°F), lethargy, and severe hypotension. A chronically encrusted indwelling urinary catheter was identified as the suspected source and immediately removed. Due to her frequent healthcare exposure and risk for multidrug-resistant organisms, empiric antimicrobial therapy was initiated with meropenem and linezolid. She has improved significantly over the past two days, and vasopressor support has been successfully discontinued. Current vital signs are temperature 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure 122/78 mm Hg, pulse 84/min, and respirations 16/min. Finalized results from both blood and urine cultures isolate Proteus mirabilis. Susceptibility testing reveals the organism is resistant to tetracycline but fully susceptible to ampicillin, ceftriaxone, cefepime, piperacillin-tazobactam, and meropenem. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacological intervention at this time?
- Narrow the antimicrobial therapy to ceftriaxoneCevap
- BContinue the current meropenem and linezolid therapy
- CDiscontinue linezolid and complete the course with meropenem
- DTransition the antimicrobial therapy to cefepime
- ETransition the antimicrobial therapy to piperacillin-tazobactam