A 62-year-old man is evaluated in the intensive care unit for rapidly worsening oxygenation. Two days ago, he underwent an emergency exploratory laparotomy for a perforated duodenal ulcer. Blood cultures drawn at admission are currently growing *Escherichia coli* susceptible to ceftriaxone. He is receiving intravenous piperacillin-tazobactam, vancomycin, and a continuous norepinephrine infusion.
Current vital signs:
* Temperature: ()
* Blood pressure:
* Heart rate:
Physical examination reveals flat jugular veins. Lung auscultation demonstrates diffuse bilateral crackles. Echocardiography shows a hyperdynamic left ventricle with an estimated ejection fraction of and no valvular abnormalities. Chest radiography reveals new, dense bilateral alveolar infiltrates.
Prior to intubation, an arterial blood gas (ABG) on a non-rebreather mask showed:
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The patient is immediately intubated. Initial ventilator settings on Assist-Control Volume Control mode are:
* Tidal volume: ( of ideal body weight)
* Respiratory rate:
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Thirty minutes later, ventilator mechanics show a peak airway pressure of and a plateau pressure of . A repeat ABG is obtained:
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Which of the following are the most appropriate immediate steps in management? (Select all that apply)
- Increase the ventilator respiratory rateCevap
- Increase the positive end-expiratory pressureCevap
- CAdminister intravenous furosemide
- DMaintain the current respiratory rate as the reflects appropriate compensation
- EEscalate the antibiotic regimen to intravenous meropenem