A -year-old man is evaluated in the hospital for new-onset exertional dyspnea, fatigue, and lightheadedness over the past hours. He was admitted days ago for native aortic valve infective endocarditis caused by *Streptococcus mitis*. Blood cultures demonstrated that the organism is highly susceptible to penicillin, and he has been receiving targeted intravenous aqueous crystalline penicillin G. His temperature is (), blood pressure is , pulse is , and respirations are . Physical examination reveals a harsh, early diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal border. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Electrocardiogram reveals sinus rhythm with a PR interval of (first-degree atrioventricular block) and a new left bundle branch block. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of , a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of (Normal: -), and a free T4 of (Normal: -). The patient is currently lethargic and lacks medical decision-making capacity. His brother is at the bedside and demands that the medical team immediately switch the antibiotics to a "stronger" regimen, but the patient's advance directive legally appoints his wife, who is en route to the hospital, as his healthcare proxy. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Perform a transesophageal echocardiogramCevap
- BSwitch therapy to intravenous vancomycin and cefepime
- CAdminister inhaled albuterol and intravenous corticosteroids
- DInitiate oral levothyroxine therapy
- EObtain consent from the patient's brother to modify the treatment plan