A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 1, comes to the office 3 weeks after a difficult vaginal delivery. Her delivery was complicated by a prolonged second stage of labor and required forceps assistance. For the past 5 days, she has experienced a continuous leakage of clear fluid from her vagina. She has no dysuria, fever, abdominal pain, or fecal incontinence. Her voiding frequency is normal, but she feels constantly damp and must wear a sanitary pad at all times. Physical examination shows normal vital signs. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. A cotton swab test reveals a straining angle of (normal is ). Speculum examination reveals a small pool of clear fluid in the posterior vaginal fornix. The fluid has a slight ammonia-like odor. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
- AEmpiric broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy
- BMeasurement of postvoid residual volume
- Retrograde instillation of methylene blue into the bladderCevap
- DReassurance and observation
- ERecommendation of daily pelvic floor muscle exercises