A 44-year-old man presents to the oncology clinic for treatment planning of newly diagnosed metastatic colorectal cancer. He initially presented to his primary care physician with fatigue and was found to have iron deficiency anemia. A subsequent colonoscopy revealed a 3.5-cm ulcerated mass in the ascending colon, and a computed tomography scan of the abdomen and pelvis showed multiple hepatic metastases. His family history is notable for his father dying of colon cancer at age 48 and a paternal aunt who was treated for endometrial cancer at age 46.
Physical examination reveals pale conjunctivae and a palpable liver edge 3 cm below the right costal margin. Laboratory studies show a hemoglobin of 9.2 g/dL.
Biopsy of the hepatic lesion confirms metastatic adenocarcinoma. Immunohistochemical staining of the biopsy specimen demonstrates intact expression of MLH1 and PMS2 proteins, but absent expression of MSH2 and MSH6 proteins. The oncologist recommends initiating therapy with a programmed cell death protein 1 (PD-1) inhibitor.
Which of the following molecular characteristics best explains why this patient's neoplasm is highly susceptible to this specific pharmacologic therapy?
- Accumulation of frameshift mutations resulting in the robust generation of immunogenic neoantigensCevap
- BA gain-of-function mutation in the KRAS proto-oncogene that renders the tumor dependent on alternative growth pathways
- CEpigenetic hypermethylation of the MLH1 promoter region, leading to a tumor microenvironment enriched with cytotoxic T-cells
- DInhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes by tumor-derived cytokines, preventing systemic clearance of the infused antibody
- EInherited mutations in the APC gene leading to chromosomal instability and a profusion of colonic adenomas