An -year-old woman is brought to the emergency department due to unrelenting right lower extremity pain. She was found by her neighbor on the floor of her apartment. The patient states the pain began abruptly hours ago. Her medical history includes type diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She is not taking oral anticoagulants. Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , pulse and irregularly irregular, and respirations . On physical examination, the right lower extremity is cyanotic, mottled, and cold to the touch from the mid-thigh down. Capillary refill is absent. The patient has complete loss of sensation to pinprick and light touch below the knee. She is unable to move her toes or ankle, and the calf muscles are rigid and tender to palpation. Bedside Doppler ultrasonography reveals absent arterial and venous signals in the right foot. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's right lower extremity?
- Primary lower extremity amputationCevap
- BEmergent open surgical embolectomy
- CCatheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis
- DComputed tomography angiography of the lower extremities
- ESystemic anticoagulation with continuous intravenous heparin