A 52-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for left lower quadrant abdominal pain and fever that began 24 hours ago. The pain is constant and severe. Her past medical history is significant for obesity and chronic constipation. Her temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 16/min. Physical examination reveals focal tenderness to palpation in the left lower quadrant with voluntary guarding, but no rebound tenderness or rigidity. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 16,500/mm³. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous and oral contrast demonstrates focal wall thickening of the sigmoid colon, prominent pericolic fat stranding, and an adjacent 4.5-cm well-circumscribed, rim-enhancing fluid collection. No free intraperitoneal air is observed. Based on these imaging findings, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Percutaneous image-guided catheter drainageCevap
- BAdmission for intravenous antibiotics and bowel rest alone
- CEmergent exploratory laparotomy with sigmoid resection
- DUrgent colonoscopy to evaluate for underlying malignancy
- EDischarge home with oral antibiotics and clear liquid diet