An infectious disease physician is evaluating a 31-year-old male who reports one week of high fevers, drenching night sweats, and a painfully swollen lump on the right side of his neck. Six weeks prior, the patient was diagnosed with advanced HIV infection (CD4+ cell count: 45/mm³) along with disseminated Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC). At that time, a targeted antimicrobial regimen of azithromycin and ethambutol was initiated. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) was subsequently added four weeks ago. The patient initially showed significant clinical improvement, but his symptoms recurred over the past week. Laboratory studies today reveal a CD4+ cell count of 210/mm³ and an undetectable HIV viral load. Fine-needle aspiration of the enlarged right cervical lymph node yields sterile necrotic material, and acid-fast bacilli staining is negative. Which of the following is the most likely underlying immunologic mechanism for this patient's current presentation?
- Pathogen-specific expansion of CD4+ T lymphocytes with exaggerated localized cytokine releaseCevap
- BClonal expansion of drug-resistant microbial strains due to subtherapeutic antimicrobial concentrations
- CDeposition of drug-associated immune complexes leading to classical complement pathway activation
- DInhibition of hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes causing toxic accumulation of macrolide antibiotics
- EAntigen-crosslinking of IgE on mast cells due to a newly acquired medication hypersensitivity