A 27-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, presents to the emergency department with two days of mild, intermittent left lower quadrant abdominal pain and light vaginal spotting. Her last menstrual period was six weeks ago. She has no significant past medical history and takes only prenatal vitamins. Vital signs include a temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F), blood pressure of 118/74 mm Hg, heart rate of 82/min, and respiratory rate of 14/min. Physical examination reveals mild left adnexal tenderness on palpation but no cervical motion tenderness or palpable masses. The cervical os is closed, and there is no active bleeding in the vaginal vault. A serum quantitative -human chorionic gonadotropin (-hCG) level is mIU/mL. Transvaginal ultrasonography demonstrates a thickened endometrial stripe of 12 mm without a visible intrauterine gestational sac, no adnexal masses, and no free pelvic fluid. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluating this patient's condition?
- ADiagnostic laparoscopy
- BMagnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis
- Repeat serum quantitative -hCG testing in 48 hoursCevap
- DAdministration of intramuscular methotrexate
- EEndometrial sampling via dilation and curettage