A 72-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her son for a routine follow-up. She has a history of a massive ischemic stroke 8 months ago involving the right middle cerebral artery territory, which resulted in dense left-sided hemiplegia. Since the stroke, she has been bedbound and non-weight-bearing on her left side despite physical therapy efforts. Her current medications include aspirin, atorvastatin, and lisinopril. On physical examination, her vital signs are within normal limits. There is marked asymmetry of her lower extremities; her left thigh and calf circumferences are significantly smaller than those on the right. Deep tendon reflexes are 3+ on the left and 2+ on the right, with a positive Babinski sign on the left. The skin on the left leg is intact with no erythema, edema, or calf tenderness. Which of the following subcellular processes is most directly responsible for the reduction in muscle mass observed in this patient's left lower extremity?
- AOpening of the mitochondrial permeability transition pore and cytosolic release of cytochrome c
- BIntravascular fibrin polymerization and platelet aggregation causing microvascular hypoxic injury
- Covalent attachment of ubiquitin to cytoskeletal proteins and subsequent proteasomal degradationCevap
- DPharmacological depletion of intracellular isoprenoids leading to myocyte mitochondrial dysfunction
- EMassive influx of extracellular calcium activating cytosolic phospholipases and endonucleases