A hematology consultation is requested for a 61-year-old man hospitalized with a massive left popliteal deep vein thrombosis. He was initially managed with a continuous intravenous infusion of unfractionated heparin. On hospital day 6, his platelet count fell precipitously from an admission baseline of to . Suspecting a drug-induced complication, the medical team obtained a serotonin release assay, which returned positive. All heparin products were immediately withdrawn, and an intravenous argatroban infusion was initiated. Now, on hospital day 10, the patient's lower extremity edema has significantly improved, and his platelet count has steadily recovered to . The clinical team is preparing for discharge and plans to transition his antithrombotic therapy to oral warfarin. Which of the following outlines the most appropriate strategy for monitoring and adapting his pharmacotherapy?
- Initiate warfarin, continue the argatroban infusion for at least five days, and discontinue argatroban only when the international normalized ratio is greater than .Cevap
- BInitiate warfarin, continue the argatroban infusion for at least five days, and discontinue argatroban when the international normalized ratio reaches a standard target of .
- CDiscontinue the argatroban infusion, initiate oral warfarin immediately, and assess the international normalized ratio daily until a therapeutic level is achieved.
- DReplace argatroban with subcutaneous enoxaparin, initiate warfarin concurrently, and discontinue enoxaparin when the international normalized ratio exceeds .
- EInitiate warfarin, continue the argatroban infusion, and adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain an activated partial thromboplastin time between and times normal.