Emergency medical services arrive with an elderly female patient, aged years, complaining of an abrupt onset of excruciating left lower extremity pain that started hours prior to arrival. Her medical history is significant for hypertension, type diabetes mellitus, and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. She admits she stopped taking her prescribed apixaban two weeks ago due to financial difficulties.
On physical examination, the patient is in obvious distress. Her temperature is (), heart rate is and irregular, blood pressure is , and respiratory rate is . Evaluation of the left lower extremity reveals it is pale, cold to the touch, and exhibits mottled skin distal to the knee. The patient reports profound numbness over the dorsum of the foot and is completely unable to dorsiflex her toes. Palpation of the left femoral pulse is normal, but the popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses are absent. Bedside continuous-wave Doppler evaluation demonstrates absent arterial signals over the distal left leg, while venous signals remain audible.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- AComputed tomography angiography of the lower extremities
- BCatheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis
- Intravenous heparin administration and emergent open surgical embolectomyCevap
- DIntravenous heparin administration and admission to the intensive care unit
- ETransthoracic echocardiography to identify an embolic source