A 58-year-old man presents to the emergency department with right calf swelling and discomfort that began 2 days ago. He recently returned from a 10-hour international flight. He has no significant past medical history and takes no daily medications. Vital signs are temperature 37.0°C (98.6°F), blood pressure 128/80 mmHg, pulse 82/min, and respirations 14/min. Room air oxygen saturation is 98%. The patient is ambulating well and his pain is controlled with oral acetaminophen. He lives with a supportive partner. Physical examination reveals a swollen, mildly tender right calf without erythema. A compression ultrasonography demonstrates an acute deep vein thrombosis in the right popliteal vein. Complete blood count and basic metabolic panel, including serum creatinine, are within normal limits. Which of the following is the most appropriate, cost-conscious next step in the management of this patient?
- Initiate a direct oral anticoagulant and discharge home with primary care follow-upCevap
- BAdmit to the inpatient medical service and initiate continuous intravenous unfractionated heparin
- COrder a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram to rule out an asymptomatic pulmonary embolism
- DDischarge to a skilled nursing facility for daily administration of low-molecular-weight heparin
- EOrder a comprehensive inherited thrombophilia panel to determine the optimal duration of anticoagulation