A 28-year-old woman is evaluated in the emergency department for a 2-day history of right-sided back pain, fever, and chills. She also reports severe nausea and has vomited four times over the past 6 hours. She has no significant past medical history and takes no daily medications.
Temperature is 39.0°C (102.2°F), blood pressure is 115/75 mmHg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 18/min. Physical examination reveals marked right-sided costovertebral angle tenderness. The patient appears flushed and actively vomits a small amount of bilious fluid during the examination.
Laboratory results:
Leukocyte count: 16,500/mm³
Serum creatinine: 0.8 mg/dL
Urine pregnancy test: Negative
Urinalysis: Positive for nitrites and leukocyte esterase; >50 WBCs/hpf
The patient is given 1 L of intravenous normal saline, intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous ondansetron. Two hours later, her temperature is 38.3°C (100.9°F), pulse is 95/min, and blood pressure is 118/78 mmHg. The nurse provides her with a small cup of water, which she immediately vomits.
Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate disposition for this patient?
- Admission to the general medical wardCevap
- BDischarge home with a prescription for oral ciprofloxacin
- CDischarge home with arrangements for daily outpatient intravenous ceftriaxone
- DAdmission to the intensive care unit
- ETransfer to a skilled nursing facility