A 62-year-old man comes to the clinic for a routine follow-up. He has a 10-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and a history of heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (ejection fraction of ). His current medications include metformin, lisinopril, and amlodipine. He feels well and reports no shortness of breath, orthopnea, or lower extremity edema. His blood pressure is , and his pulse is . Physical examination reveals clear lungs bilaterally and no jugular venous distention. Laboratory evaluation shows a hemoglobin A1c of . The physician considers adding pioglitazone to the patient's regimen to improve glycemic control but decides against it due to the patient's cardiac history. Which of the following best describes the cellular mechanism by which the avoided medication promotes fluid retention?
- ADecreased degradation of bradykinin leading to increased capillary permeability
- BDirect negative inotropic effect on ventricular cardiomyocytes
- Upregulation of epithelial sodium channel transcription in the renal collecting tubulesCevap
- DCompetitive inhibition of sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 resulting in compensatory aldosterone release
- EArteriolar smooth muscle relaxation leading to preferential precapillary vasodilation