A 31-year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit with acute-onset diffuse mucosal bleeding, petechiae across his torso, and severe fatigue. Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , heart rate , and respiratory rate . Laboratory studies show:
- Leukocytes:
- Hemoglobin:
- Platelets:
- Prothrombin time:
- Partial thromboplastin time:
- Fibrinogen:
- D-dimer:
Peripheral blood smear reveals numerous abnormal promyelocytes with bilobed nuclei, abundant granules, and multiple needle-like cytoplasmic inclusions. The underlying neoplastic process involves a chromosomal translocation that creates a fusion protein, which abnormally represses gene transcription. Based on the suspected molecular pathology, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- Administer a retinoid derivative immediately without awaiting cytogenetic confirmationCevap
- BObtain a bone marrow aspirate and biopsy to confirm the genetic mutation before initiating targeted therapy
- CInitiate standard induction chemotherapy with cytarabine and an anthracycline to rapidly achieve cellular lysis of the neoplastic clones
- DAdminister fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate to correct the coagulopathy, withholding antineoplastic agents until bleeding stops
- ESchedule urgent leukapheresis to prevent microvascular occlusion from the circulating neoplastic cells