A -year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter after suddenly developing agonizing abdominal pain hours ago. The patient has a history of ischemic cardiomyopathy, atrial fibrillation, and hypertension. She was prescribed warfarin but stopped taking it two weeks ago due to financial difficulties.
Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , pulse and irregularly irregular, and respirations . Physical examination reveals a distended abdomen with diffuse, severe tenderness, involuntary guarding, and rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are absent.
Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of and a serum lactate level of . Computed tomography angiography (CTA) of the abdomen reveals a complete occlusion of the proximal superior mesenteric artery. Air is visible within the bowel wall (pneumatosis intestinalis) and in the portal venous system.
Intravenous fluid resuscitation, broad-spectrum antibiotics, and an unfractionated heparin infusion are immediately initiated.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the surgical management of this patient?
- Emergent exploratory laparotomyCevap
- BPercutaneous endovascular mechanical thrombectomy
- CCatheter-directed intra-arterial thrombolysis
- DDiagnostic laparoscopy
- ERepeat computed tomography angiography in hours