An oncology care team is preparing to initiate induction chemotherapy for a recently admitted patient.
Demographics: -year-old male of Mediterranean descent
Vital Signs: Temperature (), HR , BP , RR
Physical Exam: Noticeably enlarged, non-tender submandibular and cervical lymph nodes. No hepatosplenomegaly.
Laboratory Findings:
- WBC:
- Hemoglobin:
- Platelets:
- Uric acid: (Normal: )
- LDH: (Normal: )
- Creatinine:
A peripheral blood smear demonstrates numerous medium-sized atypical lymphocytes with vacuolated, deeply basophilic cytoplasm. Cytogenetic analysis confirms a translocation. Given the high proliferation index and elevated baseline uric acid, the patient is at significant risk for an oncologic emergency characterized by massive release of intracellular metabolites. The attending physician recommends administering a recombinant enzyme that converts a relatively insoluble purine degradation product into a highly soluble compound. However, before administration, the physician orders an erythrocyte enzyme assay; if this assay demonstrates a specific underlying deficiency, the recombinant agent is absolutely contraindicated.
Which of the following best explains the pathophysiologic mechanism underlying this absolute contraindication?
- AThe underlying deficiency prevents the conversion of the recombinant enzyme into its active form, necessitating alternative prophylactic measures.
- BThe recombinant enzyme strongly inhibits cytochrome P450, leading to fatal toxicity when combined with the induction chemotherapy regimen.
- The recombinant enzyme generates hydrogen peroxide as a byproduct, precipitating severe oxidative erythrocyte damage.Cevap
- DThe underlying deficiency impairs hepatic glucuronidation, causing toxic accumulation of the drug and its metabolites.
- EThe recombinant enzyme rapidly depletes circulating calcium levels, exacerbating the pre-existing hypocalcemia associated with this oncologic emergency.