A 72-year-old resident of an assisted living facility is brought to the emergency department due to worsening confusion and a productive cough over the past forty-eight hours. Medical history is notable for hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. The facility staff noted that the patient has been increasingly difficult to arouse since the morning. Upon arrival in the resuscitation bay, the patient is obtunded and responds only to deep painful stimuli. Vital signs demonstrate a temperature of 35.4°C (95.7°F), blood pressure of 72/38 mm Hg, heart rate of 128/min, and respiratory rate of 26/min. Oxygen saturation is 91% on room air. Physical examination reveals cool, mottled extremities with a prolonged capillary refill time of five seconds. Pulmonary auscultation reveals coarse rhonchi predominantly in the right lower lung field. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in the management of this patient?
- Administer a rapid intravenous bolus of isotonic crystalloid fluidCevap
- BObtain a noncontrast computed tomography scan of the head
- CPerform a lumbar puncture with cerebrospinal fluid analysis
- DRequest an immediate critical care medicine consultation for intensive care unit transfer
- EAdminister intravenous tissue plasminogen activator