A 65-year-old man is evaluated for sudden-onset, excruciating pain in his right lower extremity. He is currently on hospital day 7 following a mechanical mitral valve replacement. His daily medications include warfarin and a continuous unfractionated heparin infusion for bridging therapy until his international normalized ratio (INR) is therapeutic. His current INR is . Vital signs are temperature (), blood pressure , and heart rate . Physical examination of the right lower extremity reveals a pale, cold leg. Popliteal and dorsalis pedis pulses are absent on Doppler ultrasound. Sensation to light touch is markedly diminished over the dorsum of the foot, and the patient is unable to actively dorsiflex his right toes. Laboratory studies reveal a platelet count of , a significant decrease from on admission. Which of the following procedural and pharmacological interventions are indicated as the most appropriate next steps in this patient's management? (Select 3)
- Immediate discontinuation of the unfractionated heparin infusionCevap
- Urgent vascular surgery consultation for surgical embolectomyCevap
- Initiation of an intravenous non-heparin anticoagulant such as argatrobanCevap
- DTransfusion of irradiated platelets to a target of > prior to surgical intervention
- EPostponement of surgical revascularization pending the results of a serotonin release assay
- FInitiation of therapeutic low-molecular-weight heparin monitored via activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)