A 29-year-old G1P0 woman is evaluated in the emergency department for a one-day history of lower abdominal cramping and mild vaginal spotting. She reports that her last menstrual period was approximately 6 weeks ago. Her medical history is unremarkable, and she takes no medications. Vital signs are within normal limits, including a heart rate of 78/min and a blood pressure of 116/74 mm Hg. Physical examination demonstrates a closed, non-tender cervical os. There is mild right-sided adnexal tenderness, but no palpable masses, guarding, or rebound tenderness are appreciated. A point-of-care urine pregnancy test is positive. Subsequent transvaginal ultrasonography reveals a thickened endometrial stripe measuring , no evidence of an intrauterine gestational sac, and normal-appearing ovaries bilaterally with no free fluid in the cul-de-sac. Laboratory testing shows a quantitative serum -hCG level of . Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the diagnostic workup?
- Repeat quantitative serum -hCG level in 48 hoursCevap
- BPerform a diagnostic laparoscopy
- CObtain a magnetic resonance imaging scan of the pelvis
- DPerform a diagnostic dilation and curettage
- EMeasure a single serum progesterone level