During morning rounds on hospital day 8, a 72-year-old man is assessed for transition of care. He was initially admitted for altered mental status and diagnosed with Listeria monocytogenes meningitis, for which he received a full course of intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin. He has been afebrile for 48 hours, is hemodynamically stable, and his white blood cell count is normal. His delirium has improved, though he remains oriented only to person and place, lacking insight into his current physical limitations. Prior to admission, the patient lived alone and was independent with his activities of daily living. Currently, he requires moderate assistance with feeding, bathing, and bed-to-chair transfers. Physical therapy evaluates the patient and notes that he fatigues after 45 minutes of exertion and cannot currently tolerate prolonged therapy sessions. His daughter, who is his legally designated healthcare proxy, visits daily but works full-time and cannot provide daytime supervision. The patient states, 'I am perfectly fine, I am going back to my own house today,' and demands to leave immediately. Which of the following is the most appropriate disposition plan for this patient?
- ADischarge to an inpatient rehabilitation facility with consent from his daughter
- BAllow the patient to discharge home against medical advice
- Transfer to a skilled nursing facility with consent from his daughterCevap
- DTransfer to a long-term acute care hospital
- EDischarge home with intermittent home health physical therapy