A 34-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a rapidly expanding hematoma on her right thigh and extensive ecchymoses on her arms and torso. She delivered a healthy infant 4 weeks ago via an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. She has no personal or family history of bleeding disorders and had no excessive bleeding during childbirth, prior menses, or dental procedures. Her only medication is a daily prenatal vitamin. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination reveals a 12-cm tense, tender hematoma on the right anterior thigh.
Laboratory evaluation shows:
- Hemoglobin: 10.2 g/dL
- Platelet count: 280,000/mm³
- Prothrombin time (PT): 12 seconds (normal: 11-14 seconds)
- Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT): 68 seconds (normal: 25-35 seconds)
- Thrombin time: 14 seconds (normal: 12-14 seconds)
- Fibrinogen: 350 mg/dL (normal: 200-400 mg/dL)
A 1:1 mixing study with normal pooled plasma is performed. The aPTT immediately corrects to 30 seconds. However, after incubating the mixture for 2 hours at 37°C, the aPTT is 62 seconds.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in laboratory evaluation?
- Measurement of factor VIII activity and a Bethesda assayCevap
- BDilute Russell viper venom time and hexagonal phase phospholipid neutralization
- CMeasurement of factor VIII, IX, and XI activity levels
- DMeasurement of von Willebrand factor antigen and ristocetin cofactor activity
- EMeasurement of D-dimer and fibrin degradation products