A 24-year-old male is evaluated in the orthopedic unit for severe left lower leg pain 12 hours after undergoing open reduction and internal fixation of a comminuted midshaft tibia fracture. He describes the pain as a "10/10" burning sensation that is significantly worse than his preoperative pain. The pain is not relieved by escalating doses of intravenous hydromorphone. On physical examination, the left lower leg is visibly swollen, and the skin is tense and shiny. Passive dorsiflexion of the toes elicits excruciating pain. Sensation to light touch is decreased over the first dorsal web space. Dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are equal and brisk. Which of the following are the most appropriate next steps in the management of this patient? (Select all that apply)
- Immediate removal of all encircling dressings and splints down to the skinCevap
- Emergent four-compartment fasciotomy of the affected extremityCevap
- CElevation of the affected extremity above the level of the heart
- DComputed tomography angiography of the lower extremity
- EInitiation of a continuous intravenous heparin infusion