A 65-year-old man is admitted to the surgical ward following an exploratory laparotomy and extensive lysis of adhesions. He has a medical history of heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. During the evening shift change, the primary surgical resident provides the following verbal sign-out to the cross-cover night resident: 'This is a 65-year-old man, post-op day zero. He is currently stable. His pain is controlled with an intravenous hydromorphone patient-controlled analgesia pump. Please keep an eye on his vital signs and urine output overnight. Page me if there are any issues.' At 2:00 AM, the floor nurse pages the night resident to report that the patient's urine output has been 15 mL/hr for the past two hours. The night resident, assuming the oliguria is secondary to third-spacing and intravascular depletion, immediately orders a rapid 1-liter intravenous normal saline bolus. One hour later, the patient develops severe respiratory distress, hypoxemia, and bilateral crackles on lung auscultation consistent with acute pulmonary edema. A subsequent root cause analysis identifies a structural breakdown in the handover process. Which of the following modifications to the evening sign-out would most effectively have prevented this adverse event?
- ARequiring the receiving physician to summarize and repeat back the provided information
- BPostponing the transition of care until the patient's fluid status is definitively stabilized
- Providing explicit 'if-then' contingency instructions regarding anticipated clinical changesCevap
- DVerbally detailing all potential pharmacokinetic interactions related to the analgesic infusion
- EReviewing absolute contraindications to standard postoperative pharmacotherapy during the sign-out