A 60-year-old man presents to the outpatient clinic for a routine follow-up visit. His medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (ejection fraction 35%), and paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. His prescribed medications include metformin, lisinopril, metoprolol succinate, and warfarin. During the encounter, the patient states, "I stopped taking my warfarin a month ago. A friend at my gym told me it causes brain bleeds. Besides, I started eating a large spinach salad every day to naturally keep my blood healthy." He also casually mentions that he canceled his scheduled screening colonoscopy because his bowel movements are completely normal and he experiences no abdominal pain.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
- Explore the patient's specific concerns regarding warfarin and assess his understanding of his stroke risk.Cevap
- BRequest a psychiatric consultation to evaluate the patient's legal competence to refuse standard-of-care therapy.
- CAgree to defer colon cancer screening, as it is not currently indicated for asymptomatic patients with normal bowel habits.
- DSuggest combining over-the-counter naproxen with daily high-dose aspirin as an alternative method for stroke prophylaxis.
- EPrescribe verapamil in place of metoprolol to ensure strict rate control while the patient is off anticoagulation.